Post by Tribunus Laticlavius on Oct 31, 2021 4:47:46 GMT
Nerve Gas WWII
The Atlantic states:
Sarin, along with other nerve agents like Tabun and Soman, was first produced in Germanyโs famous I.G. Farben factory in October 1938 by chemist Gerhard Schrader and his teamโquite by accident. Schrader and company stumbled upon the agent in the process of trying to develop a pesticide that targeted an insectโs nervous system. When Schrader himself came into contact with the liquid, he and his team were incapacitated for nearly a month. (The word sarin is an acronym for the names of the four scientists who developed it.) Later, the Nazi government told Schrader to forget about insects and focus on weaponizing sarin as soon as possible. Despite the Nazisโ chemical-weapons advantage, Hitler decided not to use them against Allied forces, for reasons unclear.
There are numerous photos of people in the UK trained in the use of 'gas masks' during WWII; this is also true in the US.

This was in anticipation of the Germans using WWI gases such as chlorine; the UK or US had little concept of Nerve Agents for which gas masks would be useless; contact with the skin is enough to cause death.
Allegedly the Germans had no inhibition using deadly gas to murder a class of people in gas chambers, so why the inhibition against using the nerve gases against London or Moscow? The UK or Moscow would have been powerless against such a terrible possibility if unleashed.
The British had firebombed Hamburg, Dresden and Pforzheim with the deaths of thousands of civilians; one would think an "evil" government (as claimed the Nazis were) would have few scruples in the use of nerve agents.
If they used the Nerve Agents it is likely they would have forced the allies to surrender, similar to the Japanese surrender when the US dropped the atomic weapons.
Why did Adolf Hitler not authorize the use of these weapons of mass destruction?.